题目
4、设X_(1),X_(2),X_(3),X_(4)是来自总体N(μ,1)的样本,则以下估计量最有效的是() (A.)hat(mu)_(1)=(1)/(4)X_(1)+(1)/(3)X_(2)+(1)/(4)X_(3)+(1)/(6)X_(4) (B.)hat(mu)_(2)=(1)/(4)X_(1)+(1)/(4)X_(2)+(1)/(4)X_(3)+(1)/(4)X_(4) (C.)hat(mu)_(3)=(1)/(3)X_(1)+(1)/(3)X_(2)+(1)/(3)X_(3) (D.)hat(mu)_(4)=(1)/(2)X_(1)+(1)/(2)X_(2)
4、设$X_{1},X_{2},X_{3},X_{4}$是来自总体N(μ,1)的样本,则以下估计量最有效的是() (
A.)$\hat{\mu}_{1}=\frac{1}{4}X_{1}+\frac{1}{3}X_{2}+\frac{1}{4}X_{3}+\frac{1}{6}X_{4}$ (
B.)$\hat{\mu}_{2}=\frac{1}{4}X_{1}+\frac{1}{4}X_{2}+\frac{1}{4}X_{3}+\frac{1}{4}X_{4}$ (
C.)$\hat{\mu}_{3}=\frac{1}{3}X_{1}+\frac{1}{3}X_{2}+\frac{1}{3}X_{3}$ (
D.)$\hat{\mu}_{4}=\frac{1}{2}X_{1}+\frac{1}{2}X_{2}$
A.)$\hat{\mu}_{1}=\frac{1}{4}X_{1}+\frac{1}{3}X_{2}+\frac{1}{4}X_{3}+\frac{1}{6}X_{4}$ (
B.)$\hat{\mu}_{2}=\frac{1}{4}X_{1}+\frac{1}{4}X_{2}+\frac{1}{4}X_{3}+\frac{1}{4}X_{4}$ (
C.)$\hat{\mu}_{3}=\frac{1}{3}X_{1}+\frac{1}{3}X_{2}+\frac{1}{3}X_{3}$ (
D.)$\hat{\mu}_{4}=\frac{1}{2}X_{1}+\frac{1}{2}X_{2}$
题目解答
答案
为了确定哪个估计量最有效,我们需要比较它们的方差。一个估计量的方差越小,它就越有效。给定的估计量都是总体均值$\mu$的线性组合,由于$X_1, X_2, X_3, X_4$是来自总体$N(\mu, 1)$的样本,每个$X_i$的方差为1。因此,估计量的方差是$X_i$的系数平方的和。
让我们计算每个估计量的方差:
1. 对于$\hat{\mu}_1 = \frac{1}{4}X_1 + \frac{1}{3}X_2 + \frac{1}{4}X_3 + \frac{1}{6}X_4$:
\[
\text{Var}(\hat{\mu}_1) = \left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^2 = \frac{1}{16} + \frac{1}{9} + \frac{1}{16} + \frac{1}{36} = \frac{9}{144} + \frac{16}{144} + \frac{9}{144} + \frac{4}{144} = \frac{38}{144} = \frac{19}{72}
\]
2. 对于$\hat{\mu}_2 = \frac{1}{4}X_1 + \frac{1}{4}X_2 + \frac{1}{4}X_3 + \frac{1}{4}X_4$:
\[
\text{Var}(\hat{\mu}_2) = \left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^2 = 4 \times \frac{1}{16} = \frac{4}{16} = \frac{1}{4}
\]
3. 对于$\hat{\mu}_3 = \frac{1}{3}X_1 + \frac{1}{3}X_2 + \frac{1}{3}X_3$:
\[
\text{Var}(\hat{\mu}_3) = \left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^2 = 3 \times \frac{1}{9} = \frac{3}{9} = \frac{1}{3}
\]
4. 对于$\hat{\mu}_4 = \frac{1}{2}X_1 + \frac{1}{2}X_2$:
\[
\text{Var}(\hat{\mu}_4) = \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2 = 2 \times \frac{1}{4} = \frac{2}{4} = \frac{1}{2}
\]
现在,我们比较方差:
- $\text{Var}(\hat{\mu}_1) = \frac{19}{72} \approx 0.2639$
- $\text{Var}(\hat{\mu}_2) = \frac{1}{4} = 0.25$
- $\text{Var}(\hat{\mu}_3) = \frac{1}{3} \approx 0.3333$
- $\text{Var}(\hat{\mu}_4) = \frac{1}{2} = 0.5$
最小的方差是$\frac{1}{4}$,这对应于估计量$\hat{\mu}_2$。
因此,最有效的估计量是$\boxed{B}$。
解析
本题考查的知识点是估计量有效性的判断,解题思路是通过比较各估计量的方差大小来确定最有效的估计量,方差越小的估计量越有效。
已知$X_{1},X_{2},X_{3},X_{4}$是来自总体$N(\mu,1)$的样本,即$Var(X_i)=1$,$i = 1,2,3,4$。对于线性估计量$\hat{\theta}=\sum_{i = 1}^{n}a_iX_i$,其方差$Var(\hat{\theta})=\sum_{i = 1}^{n}a_i^2Var(X_i)$,由于$Var(X_i)=1$,所以$Var(\hat{\theta})=\sum_{i = 1}^{n}a_i^2$。下面分别计算各估计量的方差:
- 对于$\hat{\mu}_{1}=\frac{1}{4}X_{1}+\frac{1}{3}X_{2}+\frac{1}{4}X_{3}+\frac{1}{6}X_{4}$:
根据上述方差计算公式可得:
$\begin{align*}Var(\hat{\mu}_{1})&=(\frac{1}{4})^2+(\frac{1}{3})^2+(\frac{1}{4})^2+(\frac{1}{6})^2\\&=\frac{1}{16}+\frac{1}{9}+\frac{1}{16}+\frac{1}{36}\\&=\frac{9}{144}+\frac{16}{144}+\frac{9}{144}+\frac{4}{144}\\&=\frac{9 + 16+9 + 4}{144}\\&=\frac{38}{144}\\&=\frac{19}{72}\end{align*}$ - 对于$\hat{\mu}_{2}=\frac{1}{4}X_{1}+\frac{1}{4}X_{2}+\frac{1}{4}X_{3}+\frac{1}{4}X_{4}$:
$\begin{align*}Var(\hat{\mu}_{2})&=(\frac{1}{4})^2+(\frac{1}{4})^2+(\frac{1}{4})^2+(\frac{1}{4})^2\\&=4\times\frac{1}{16}\\&=\frac{4}{16}\\&=\frac{1}{4}\end{align*}$ - 对于$\hat{\mu}_{3}=\frac{1}{3}X_{1}+\frac{1}{3}X_{2}+\frac{1}{3}X_{3}$:
$\begin{align*}Var(\hat{\mu}_{3})&=(\frac{1}{3})^2+(\frac{1}{3})^2+(\frac{1}{3})^2\\&=3\times\frac{1}{9}\\&=\frac{3}{9}\\&=\frac{1}{3}\end{align*}$ - 对于$\hat{\mu}_{4}=\frac{1}{2}X_{1}+\frac{1}{2}X_{2}$:
$\begin{align*}Var(\hat{\mu}_{4})&=(\frac{1}{2})^2+(\frac{1}{2})^2\\&=2\times\frac{1}{4}\\&=\frac{2}{4}\\&=\frac{1}{2}\end{align*}$
为了方便比较大小,将各方差值化为小数:
- $Var(\hat{\mu}_{1})=\frac{19}{72}\approx0.2639$
- $Var(\hat{\mu}_{2})=\frac{1}{4}=0.25$
- $Var(\hat{\mu}_{3})=\frac{1}{3}\approx0.3333$
- $Var(\hat{\mu}_{4})=\frac{1}{2}=0.5$
比较可得$0.25<0.2639<0.3333<0.5$,即$Var(\hat{\mu}_{2})$最小。